Integrated Defense Test 1 Practice

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• ________ operations are a core capability of Air Force Security Forces. These operations include ______ and ______ defense measures.
• Which statement best describes hardening and air-gapping and when each is appropriate?
• In defense contexts, what is the purpose of IP protection and how should openness be managed in information sharing?
• Who establishes the integrated defense committee?
• What is incident containment and which two strategies can achieve it in a cyber-physical system?
• The integration of multi-disciplinary, active and passive, offensive and defensive capabilities, employed to mitigate potential risks and defeat adversary threats to Air Force operations is called what?
• Define the cyber kill chain and identify the typical phases used to disrupt adversary cyber operations.
• How do threat environment assessment outputs influence defense planning?
• Which two common weaknesses undermine IP protection and supply chain security?
• What is the FPCON level used to denote an increased or more predictable threat?
• What is the purpose of standard data formats in interoperability across multinational partners?
• What is a general global threat?
• What is a single integrated picture (SIP) concept in C2, and what are its benefits in integrated defense?
• Explain what constitutes a critical asset in protection planning and name two criteria for its designation.
• IDWG stands for which of the following groups?
• The base boundary BB is not necessarily the _______; it should be established based upon METT - TC.
• The AF/A4S office symbol corresponds to which role?
• Who provides current information to the defense force commander DFC on threats affecting installation, integrated defense operations?
• Which statement correctly contrasts symmetric and asymmetric encryption?
• Which statement correctly distinguishes active defense measures from passive defense measures, and which examples illustrate each?
• What distance in feet should the boundary barrier for restricted areas be located from the base perimeter?
• Describe the concept of defense sequencing and give an example.
• Why are least privilege and need-to-know policies insufficient without monitoring and auditing?
• What are the essential components of an incident response lifecycle in integrated defense, and why is each phase important?
• What is the typical evaluation method after drills?
• Integrated defense represents two fundamental changes to policy and procedures. What is the first change?
• Which of the following is NOT a main category of cyber defense controls?
• The integrated defense plan includes asset criticality, threat, vulnerability, and risk analysis data. This reflects which planning approach?
• Which of the following correctly matches the unit to its typical membership?
• What does IDWG stand for?
• In an integrated defense context, which statement best describes deterrence?
• Which metrics are commonly used to measure the effectiveness of continuous monitoring in information security?
• What is a key benefit of SIP besides faster situational awareness?
• Compare red-team and blue-team activities within integrated defense exercises and give an example of a metric to evaluate them.
• Which protection level includes POTUS aircraft?
• Who is the Air Force chief of staff's primary advisor for integrated defense?
• List two metrics to evaluate the effectiveness of an integrated defense exercise and explain why they matter.
• Which data component is used to prioritize resource protection based on risk in the integrated defense plan?
• Which is a concrete example of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) control related to access?
• The IDC is chaired by the ________ or designee.
• Which of the following is a main component of the IDRMP?
• Which is a common secure remote access method used in defense networks?
• Which protection level includes weapon systems on alert status?
• Level ______ threats have capability of projecting combat power by air, land, or sea.
• The IDC includes group commanders, commanders, a major tenant organizations, and key unit commanders. Which body is described?
• What is the key difference between red-teaming and purple-teaming?
• The IDC is chaired by the Installation Commander or designee. Which role fulfills this chair?
• In the context of integrated defense, what does AO stand for?
• In the seven-step IDRMP process, which step follows the Risk Tolerance Decision?
• In the incident response lifecycle, which phase follows Containment?
• Which protection level includes intelligence gathering systems critical to US operational capability?
• Which indicator best highlights supplier risk due to reliance on a small number of suppliers?
• Which statements are true descriptions of need-to-know and least privilege?
• In a cyber-physical system, what is the primary purpose of a kill-switch during an incident?
• That part of security concerned with physical measures designed to safeguard personnel; prevent unauthorized access to equipment.
• Integrated defense represents two fundamental changes to policy and procedures. What is the second change?
• What is risk-based resource allocation in defense planning, and how does it determine priority?
• Which governance mechanism best enforces least privilege by assigning permissions to roles rather than individuals?
• Which statement best describes supply chain risk management in defense?
• What is the name of the cell that coordinates cross-agency intelligence and intelligence preparation of the operational environment?
• Which FPCON level applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred?
• Two ethical/legal constraints in surveillance are privacy rights and oversight. Which statements describe these constraints?
• What is the third step in the IPB process?
• A Fire Team consists of how many ID force members?
• How often does the integrated defense working group IDWG convene?
• Who will serve as approval authority for force protection, and integrated defense guidance/policy and waiver authority for non-tiered requirements?
• Which option represents a best practice that directly supports supply chain security rather than IP protection?
• Which list correctly enumerates the six steps of the Military Decision Making Process (MDMP) as used in integrated defense planning?
• What does the principle of least privilege require in system administration?
• Which question best describes the purpose of Contingency Plans in installation security?
• What codifies installation defense efforts among responsible internal and external agencies?
• Who provides surveillance over IDS sectors or zones?
• In risk assessment, how is likelihood defined and estimated?
• Which statement correctly describes hot, warm, and cold sites and their use cases?
• As a minimum the integrated defense plan will include a completed ______
• Which practices are essential for secure communications in contested environments?
• Which protection level includes weapon systems on alert status, selected command, control, and communications facilities, and systems equipment, and intelligence gathering systems not critical?
• Who selects and designates restricted and controlled areas?
• Which protection level is assigned to Air Force mission support assets that do not meet the definitions of PL-1, PL-2, or PL-3?
• Which MDMP step includes developing potential Courses of Action?
• When loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would result in unacceptable mission degradation.
• ________ are senior integrated defense force members assigned to a specific area of operation (AO).
• How often should the Integrated Defense Plan (IDP) be reviewed?
• What does IDWG stand for?
• In STRIDE, which category addresses the risk of a user denying a performed action later?
• Implementation of FPCON _____ for more than a short period of time creates hardship.
• Explain the role of governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) in integrated defense and provide an example of a control.
• The range of potential adversaries includes the ________ traditional threat levels.
• Which statement about continuous monitoring is true?
• Which level threats include small scale, irregular forces conducting unconventional warfare?
• What is a single point of failure in a defense supply chain?
• What is an increased general threat?
• An SRT is composed of how many members?
• Who conducts and coordinates the Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP)?
• Which term best captures the overarching approach of coordinating defense across multiple agencies?
• The second fundamental change described for integrated defense policy moves the focus from compliance-based to what?
• Which pair of controls belongs to the Detection category?
• Which level of threat has capability of projecting combat power by air, land, or sea?
• Resilience in critical infrastructure relies on architectural patterns. Name two patterns that support resilience.
• Defensive measures used to reduce the vulnerability of individuals and property to terrorist acts, including limited response and containment by local military and civilian forces.
• Which level threats include enemy agents and terrorists?
• FPCON _______ must be capable of being maintained for weeks without causing undue hardship.
• Backups and disaster recovery testing are typical controls in which defense category?
• Which term describes the boundary line delineating the surface area of a base?
• Which statement accurately describes a hot site in disaster recovery?
• What are the typical steps in conducting a risk assessment for cyber-physical systems?
• The IDC meeting frequency is at least how often?
• Which indicator helps identify potential disruption due to location-based factors such as natural disasters or political instability?
• How should an exercise be designed to test cross-domain coordination between military, civilian authorities, and private sector in integrated defense?
• Who decides whether additional ECPs are needed at restricted areas?
• Who accomplishes tasks for the IDC?
• How do interoperability and joint operations influence the design of defense architectures in multinational contexts?
• Who maintains command and control C2 over integrated defense operations?
• The ______ is defined as a line that delineates the surface area of a base.
• Name one challenge to effective information sharing in defense.
• The goal of which concept is to mitigate potential risks and defeat adversary threats to Air Force operations within the base boundary and base security zone BSZ?
• What FPCON level is declared as a localized condition?
• What is the Information Fusion Cell in the integrated defense framework?
• The IDC convenes ________ as a minimum.
• What are three key components of crisis communication planning in integrated defense?
• Who establishes the integrated defense committee?
• AF/A4S stands for which Air Force office?
• Which is the last of the nine integrated defense desired effects?
• What is defense-in-depth and how is it implemented across physical, cyber, and information domains?
• In Intelligence Preparation of the Battlefield/Environment (IPB), what are the four steps?
• Which protection level includes designated critical space and resources?
• Which statement best describes purple-teaming?
• The ________ is the area outside the base perimeter from which the base may be vulnerable to standoff threats.
• Which combination accurately describes two common tabletop exercise methodologies and a key success metric?
• Who provides security surveillance over the boundary of restricted areas or individual resources?
• What provides installation commanders, the IDWG, DFC, and defense planners the ability to produce effects-based IDP using a standardized model to identify risks and develop risk management strategies?
• Which term describes deterring threat activity through active community policing, such as eagle eyes?
• In threat modeling, which framework identifies threats such as Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, and Elevation of Privilege?
• Who selects and designates restricted and controlled areas?
• Describes the area of concern around an airbase to support the establishment and adjustment of the base boundary.
• The plan that codifies installation defense across responsible agencies is abbreviated as what?
• Which statement best describes graceful degradation in a resilient system?
• Do not establish more than ______ ECPs for each restricted area.
• Which statement best describes the domains covered by defense of the information infrastructure?
• Action cell were subject matter experts from the intelligence, Air Force office of special investigations, anti-terrorism and security forces, collaborate and conduct intelligence preparation of the operational environment?
• What is an ICS/SCADA risk and name two defensive strategies to mitigate it in a defense system?
• OPSEC is used to protect sensitive information; which of the following describes its purpose and gives examples of indicators it guards?
• Which level in the FPCON framework is specifically labeled as Bravo?
• Who serves as the installation anti-terrorism officer (ATO)?
• What are two common methodologies for tabletop exercises and what is a key metric for success?
• Which protection level includes Nuclear weapons and components, C4, systems critical to active nuclear missions, designated critical space and resources, and POTUS aircraft?
• Which metric measures how often benign events are incorrectly flagged as threats?
• Which protection level includes non-nuclear alert forces, expensive, one-of-a-kind systems, selected critical command, control, and communications facilities, vital computer facilities, and equipment, and intelligence gathering systems critical to US operational capability?
• What determines the levels of security dedicated to resources based on program manpower?
• Which term identifies the area outside the base perimeter from which the base may be vulnerable to standoff threats?
• Which components are included in a threat environment assessment in integrated defense?
• What does COA stand for in the IDRMP context?
• Which term determines the levels of security dedicated to resources based on program manpower?
• Which protection level corresponds to loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise that would degrade mission capability?
• Who serves as the installation commander's primary advisor for integrated defense?
• ________ are response elements consisting of two properly trained, armed, and equipped ID force members.
• In which scenario is air-gapping most appropriate?
• Which function analyzes all source information concerning threats to DOD missions, people or resources and capabilities?
• The Integrated Defense Work Group (IDWG) is chaired by the ________?
• Which option is NOT a step in the seven-step IDRMP process?
• What statement correctly contrasts risk assessment with risk management in defense planning? Example:
• _________ are plans dealing with events that could potentially occur at an installation.
• What is the purpose of a Security Operations Center (SOC) in integrated defense, and what are its three core functions?
• ________ applies when an incident occurs or Intel received.
• Which statement best differentiates threat intelligence from operational intelligence in integrated defense?
• What is the purpose of just-in-time privileges in access control?
• Which component of security is focused on preventing unauthorized access to equipment and safeguarding personnel?
• What does RA stand for in base security terminology?
• Which is the first of the nine integrated defense desired effects?
• Who retains representation to the DOD peace officer standards in training (POST) commission?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the nine integrated defense desired effects in the BB and BSZ?
• When loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would result in significant mission degradation.
• Who is responsible for all operations performed by an installation, for which integrated defense operations are a part?
• Which statement correctly describes the function of fusion centers in defense information sharing?
• What is a strategic kill chain in integrated defense, and what is the effect of disrupting its early steps?
• Describe the difference between physical access control and perimeter security and provide two example controls for each.
• Which term refers to the area around an airbase used to support adjusting the base boundary?
• The term for the defense concept that integrates offensive and defensive capabilities to protect Air Force operations is called what?
• Consists of four ID force members on one team or any combination of internal and external SRT.
• What is a key element of balancing openness and security in information sharing?